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Multiphase model #174

@chrisknewman

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@chrisknewman

To move to multiphase, namely with farzadi it probably makes sense to move to phi \in (0,10 rather than phi \in (-1,1) as is implemented now. This would insure that phi_1+phi_2 =1 rather than phi_1+phi_2 =0, and we would have phi_1+phi_2+...+phi_n = 1. It would be alot less complicated and easier to explain. We would need to modify the g and h polynomials also. Would probably be more consistent with the grain-scale models also. Also make terms for D_L and D_S etc easier to read.

(1-phi^2)^2 => 16 ( phi (1-phi) )^2 = 16( phi_S phi_L)^2

phi-phi^3 => 8 [ phi (1-phi) (phi - 1/2)] = 8 [ phi_S phi_L (phi_S -1/2) ] not sure what meaning of phi_s-1/2 is

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